Just since the first World War. I don't think this assertion can be backed up. How does uneven wealth distribution result in bubbles? Again, you have no grounds to assert this. No one has ever quantified the economic impact of uneven wealth distribution. Why not? If linear distribution of wealth is the overriding factor of economic success, why not do this? I'm getting the idea that your whole argument is bunk because you are relying on the notion that uneven distribution of wealth is bad. My thinking is, the AMOUNT of wealth is what is important, not the distribution. This is why the US economy fared a wee bit better than the Soviet ecnomy, which had real linear wealth distribution. Yes, because all of a sudden you have means of production. The power to invest. You know, stuff that drives the economy. You know what else is easier when you have a lot of money? Losing a lot of money. Take a look at the other side of the coin. Then how are they making more money? Then how are they making more money? Hmm. Who sets the magical number of "the right amount of wealth"? Very good. I like it. Except you leave out the bit where the government needs to take a large portion of the profit. Maybe that part isn't needed at all? Now I'm confused. Are these companies not the same as in your bit about the economic cycle?