The Role of Genetics in Racial Behavior

welsh said:
The problem is trying to reduce this all to one variable. That kind of determinism is very difficult to do. John Stuart Mill was very critical of this kind of determinism in the social sciences in part because of the complexity of society but also the way variable interact.

But the problem is also one of conceptualization- the more you fudge the variables with other social or nurture type arguments, the greater you move away from your argument that it's all about genetics adn the more you define race along stereotypes.

This argument about Asians being more predisposed towards intelligence and non-violence is a very Western stereotypical view of Asia. That the Asian students that you see often do well and strive to succeed may have more to do with class and social experience. Many are driven by parents who push them to take advantage of education and career opportunities to climb the social ladder in Western society, in part because that is often the social class that the parents come from. Likewise, many immigrants families go through the same process of pushing their kids to work hard in school to acheive. Which is it that matters?

However, a closer look at Asia shows some pretty violent stuff. Violence? Genocide in Cambodia, massacres in India, purges in China, a cultural revolution, war time slaughters in Vietnam and Korea of civilians, ethnic cleansing in Indonesia, etc. Crime? The major cities of Asia have had the same problems with crime that we have in the US and the in Europe. Intelligence? Please. There are plenty enough Asians without education or with limited education.

And before we go off on the Africa has had a history of "take your territory and kill everyone" history- best to do a bit more homework on African societies prior to colonialization. Africa historically has suffered the problem of low population densities to high geography, unlike European society where you have little geography and lots of competing political units, which created the frequency of war in Europe, and thus the engine for national state. As Charles Tilly is oft quoted- "war made states and states made war." It was this ability to utilize violence by national state and the agents of national states and commerce that allowed Europe to conquer most of the world.

So back to the issue- the problem of concepts.

If you mean black, or Asian or white- are you also including society and culture into that concept. Blacks are not just racially black, but they can also be defined by their living and social conditions?

Perhaps such a conceptualization might make things easier, but it might also make things confusing- especially if you are trying to understand causes.

Is it poverty or is it education or is it urbanization, or....(choose the next relevant variables).

You need to disaggregate your variables and you need to test them for both their internal validty (are racial groups still violent when you remove those social-economic factors) and then test the external validty- (what explains violence when that ethnic group is not present?)

Then return with your data- what matters more- is it race, religion, culture, economics?

As to the population of Africa we are talking about over 40,000 years ago in comparison to Asia and Europe.

Blacks' living and social conditions are far better than most any seen in Asia.

What explains violence when blacks are not around? Did I ever say that whites didn't commit violent acts? Hell no. It's simply put by the Department of Justice that blacks are 7 times more likely to commit murder... that is WAY too high of a difference to explain by culture only. That's the equivalent to saying that monkeys are 7 times less intelligent because they don't live in houses.

What matters more, hmmm? Let me see... what other groups in the entire world, living in the same cities and regions, based on economics, religion or culture have that much of a difference in occurence of murder? Can someone find me data on this? Two groups, same region... one having 7 times higher murder rate...

FIND IT!!!!


Oh and Kharn that set twins goes AGAINST the grain, they are a statistical anomaly(yes they DO occur)... I never said it was not possible for a black man to be reasonable calm and intelligent.
 
inane said:
Oh and Kharn that set twins goes AGAINST the grain, they are a statistical anomaly(yes they DO occur)... I never said it was not possible for a black man to be reasonable calm and intelligent.

Before said:
Identical twins', separated at birth, life stories, raised in COMPLETELY different environs, -->>ALWAYS<<-- turn out to have VERY similar life courses (recidivism, what kind of crime activity if any they were involved with, whether they went to college, what kind of job they have, drug use, mental disorders, their favorite color, what their spouses look like, the color of their house, the color and MODEL of their cars and even what KIND OF DOG THEY HAVE.)

PLease do not twist around and "lie", to put it unkindly. If you misspoke, say so or admit you made a mistake/were wrong

This STILL does not answer my question as to the relevance of this. It is easy to dodge points you can not answer, but not very convincing
 
John Uskglass said:
There is more stupidity in this thread then every one of my posts in the year 2004 combined.

Well, maybe the first half of the year. The things in my sig are a testament to that, and you made alot of them!
 
John Uskglass said:
There is more stupidity in this thread then every one of my posts in the year 2004 combined.
Let's make that 2003 to be on the safe side.

Even better, let's make that 2002, since you weren't registered then.

:wink:
 
Murdoch said:
Well, maybe the first half of the year. The things in my sig are a testament to that, and you made alot of them!
That was a joke, Murdoch.

Even better, let's make that 2002, since you weren't registered then.

Haha. Fair enough. I did'nt even post much in 2003 IIRC.
 
John Uskglass said:
I did'nt even post much in 2003 IIRC.

I believe you posted 309 times in 2003, but you were only posting for a few days more than three months. Roughly two and a half posts a day for that period. Considering your total average is now around four and three quarters posts per day, you have brought it up considerably since that time. So, in conclusion, yes, you were posting comparatively little during 2003.
 
If I ever have to ask a question that requires a factual answer I have to remember to ask Kotario. Apparently he remembers everything.

(Impressed.),
The Vault Dweller
 
As to the population of Africa we are talking about over 40,000 years ago in comparison to Asia and Europe.

Well Inane, I am not sure where you are going with this. Does the time matter? Well prior to colonization by Europe, Africa had a number of different civilizations based on different political organizations, some (like the Ashanti or the Zulu) were more warlike than others. However, generally speaking these were fairly stable societies and relatively peaceful (if you want to compare them with other places in the world).

Economically they were less developed than Europe, but than that was also true with much of the world. Why did Europe develop so fast? Let's not forget that with the fall of Rome, Europe was swept across with barbarian invasions that became the forerunner of modern statemakers. That in Europe you had nearly 700 different politically autonomous bodies at one time, and yet most were destroyed or consumed. That because of the population densities and the need for food, war was frequent.

For a rather enjoyable read on this check out Charles Tilly's edited- Formation of National States in Western Europe, and then read his followup book Capital, Coercion and European Statemaking.

Adversity and challenge creates innovation- to survive, European states had to outperform potential rivals. Eventually the national state became the dominant organization because it could both harvest capital and coercive means, and inevitably these national states turned outward to the rest of the world- in part to gain access and monopoly over foreign imports (spices) or to seize wealth (gold from Mexico) or export surplus populations.

In contrast, Africa, being a tropical place has often had the problem of infectious diseases. Africa is also tremendously big. The Democratic Republic of Congo alone is almost as big as much of continental Europe. Whereas states in Europe often fought all or nothing war over territory, Africans could often move. If the local tribal chief was being a bit too tough, you went elsewhere beyond his periphery. Africans also suffered in types of food products that could be produced- you might want to read Jared Diamonds (Guns, Germs and Steel to examine a geographical argument of why some folks do better than others). Thus Africa lacked the incentives to innovate as did the Europeans. But don't be too harsh on Africa, while much of Europe was being swept under by barbarians, North Africans were doing great things with numbers and mathematics. Furthermore, Europeans would often - in part because of the racial chauvenism of the time- disparage signs of Africa's civilization, as the case of ancient Zimbabwe illustrates.

But this does not mean that Europeans were inherently more intelligent or clever- merely that their circumstances drove them innovate and adapt as well as the tools to do so, in ways that Africans did not.

Compare both to say Chinese- Again you are talking about a large population in a very narrow place. Yet you also have advantages to the Chinese in terms of food production (types of livestock and grains that could be produced). You also have a society that is very aware of the dangers of external invasion- The Great Wall is a technology to keep out invasion, but also the development of a bureaucratic system through the mandarins and the testing process. But again- little territory, favorable food cultivation, danger of war.
Blacks' living and social conditions are far better than most any seen in Asia.

Which blacks and where, or when? Colonization in Africa introduced all sorts of distortions to the political systems of those countries. In Congo alone it is estimated that nearly 2/3 of the population was wiped out in the first years of colonization. In Liberia, the longest soveriegn state, relocated American Blacks created a system of exploitation over indigenous groups with consequences that stretched into that country's recent turmoils. In South Africa, blacks were forceably removed from their lands by Boers who placed them in a clearly subordinate relationship. What is remarkable about the colonization of Africa is not only the bloodshed, but how overwheming European technologies were. A few guys with machineguns can do a lot of damage.

That said, colonization caused great hardships on the blacks, but when colonization ended, the structures of authority and domination were left in place while former colonies were able to sustain neo-imperial relationships over those territories. We've posted before about how prices on commodities vs manufactured and services disfavors Africa- creating entrenched poverty.

What explains violence when blacks are not around? Did I ever say that whites didn't commit violent acts? Hell no. It's simply put by the Department of Justice that blacks are 7 times more likely to commit murder... that is WAY too high of a difference to explain by culture only. That's the equivalent to saying that monkeys are 7 times less intelligent because they don't live in houses.

Yes, but you keep going to that one statistic. And I agree, culture alone doesn't account for it. There has to be more. But is it necessarily race? Is it the type of embalance between ethnicities? Or is it other factors that come baggaged with race- like income levels, urbanization, poverty.

For while we can accept that the past 30 or so years has meant a roll back on legal segregation and discrimination against blacks, we can also see, in the last 20 years, a roll back in social programs meant to alleviate poverty.

What matters more, hmmm? Let me see... what other groups in the entire world, living in the same cities and regions, based on economics, religion or culture have that much of a difference in occurence of murder? Can someone find me data on this? Two groups, same region... one having 7 times higher murder rate...
FIND IT!!!!

Inane- again, it is your responsibility to disprove other arguments, to marshal the evidence that other societies are worse.

However, since you ask.

Here is a discussion of the best and worse living standards in the world quality of life report - global comparisons also city surveys

You will no doubt note that the best cities in the world in which to live are in Switzerland, and then throughout Europe- why? Could it have anything to do with their notions of social democracy? That there is a more communitarian attitude towards social peace and community? Or is it because there are no blacks there.

No blacks? But then scroll down. Some of the best cities in the world in which to live include New York, Chicago, Washington DC. Now I'm from New York, and I live close to Washington and there is no way you can tell me that those cities don't have large black populations.

So what it is? Is it race or is it economics? How do you account for the crime rates in Russia? If you want to split the communities up- why not do it based on income rather than skin color- the haves vs the have nots? I am willing to bet that where you have populations where the havenots out rank the haves by 7 to 1 you are likely to have some pretty high crime rates.

Inane- don't take your info from here- http://www.stormfront.org/forum/showthread.php?t=58978
 
Best ciities to live doesn't mean low crime rates, it means some idiot wrote down "best city to live in." ANd secondarily no one has proven their case that culture or economics has created ANY two cultures where one commits 7 times the murder. On top of it all I'M willing to bet that the rich in Russia kill more than the impoverished. They just hire out.
 
Kotario said:
I believe you posted 309 times in 2003, but you were only posting for a few days more than three months. Roughly two and a half posts a day for that period. Considering your total average is now around four and three quarters posts per day, you have brought it up considerably since that time. So, in conclusion, yes, you were posting comparatively little during 2003.
........


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...............

Stalker.
 
Except, Inane, countries are usually not so easily replicable. Do all countries have the same proportions of blacks to whites? Do all countries have the same economic problems?

Think about it this way, if you are merely making a causal claim using the US as an example- than you have an N = 1 problem. Any potential cause could be behind that statistic.

Are there two cultures in Russia- the one that is empowered and rich vs the one that is poor and constrained? What about in Chinese cities.

This is why a better way of dividing the society might be by social class. This way you can account for why poor white neighborhoods often suffer the same social and economic problems (including that of crime) as black neighborhoods. It would also allow you to test your argument more effectively across regions were race is inconsequential. Finally, it might account for your problem- why blacks commit crimes 7 times higher than whites, and why those crimes are lead to the victimization of blacks.



So you expand the set and compare other American cities- but other American cities have different ratios of blacks and whites, and different rates of crime.

Compare all cities across the world? Sure they don't all have the same racial composition- but you can find blacks in Paris, or Amsterdam - are they more prone to violence.

What about cities where there is no significant racial disparities, yet have high crime rates. That would suggest that the cause of crime is not "blacks" nor even race, but perhaps by some other division of society that you have not accounted for.

You have got to consider and eliminate alternative arguments. For example, you pm'd me that increase in crime in the correlated with increased movement of blacks out of the South into inner cities. Perhaps, but that doesn't explain why those rates go up and down depending on economic performance.

Also, an alternative argument- much of today's crime is related to drug trade. FBI statistics show that the person who is murdered today is not usually killed by an acquaintance, a variation in statistics from the past. Rather those that are killed and get killed are often inner city minorities in poor neighborhoods. Yet crime has spread outside of cities since the 1970s.

Yet we also know, from FBI documents (and for an interesting read see McCroy's Politics of Heroin in Southeast Asia), that while minorities have suffered the social problems related to the drug trade for many years going back before the Great Depression, police authorities basically did little to control this- it was seen as a problem of a minority trapped in the inner city and with little likelihood to spread out.

Yet, following the Vietnam War, many of the guys who returned brought with them their addictions- either through the use of heroin while overseas or because of a dependence on morphine related drugs due to injuries. The drug trade spread, paid for in part by foreign organizations (Corscian or Scilian mobsters or Asian gangs) and spread throughout the inner city by blacks. Increased markets meant a spread of those drugs.

Now gangs have spread out of cities into townships across the US, because gangs operate, in many ways, like franchises. If they sell a good to a community and compete over territory with a rush to seize territory before their competition. Like franchises they have a central management at the top of those who have survived and prospered in the business. Also like franchises they take advantage of youth for labor realizing that these youth will probably leave the trade- either by choice or by death.

But why? Because there is a rational ends- to make a profit. And why did this happen- because the police did little to control the drug trade early and the consequence of war allowed the trade to expand. Is it because of race? No, only in the sense that blacks had a competitive advantage in being at the center of the marketing of drugs early on.

But this is not a racial argument, merely an economic one in which one ethnicity had a preferential position in the marketing of a commodity.
 
So, we can blame the US's current drug problems on Vietnam? Seems appropriate! :wink:
 
Murdoch said:
So, we can blame the US's current drug problems on Vietnam? Seems appropriate! :wink:

Aren't they one third of the Golden Triangle?

EDIT: maybe Laos, Cambodia and Thailand IIRC. Not that that accounts for our demand for said product.
 
The Golden Triangle is comprised of a territory including Burma, Laos and Thailand. Vietnam is a bit out of range, but there is significant opium production there as well.

But you also have heroin being shipped out of the middle east- Lebanon, Turkey and Afghanistan as well.

Murdoch- I am just positing a different theory for the crime rates and its ethnic nature. Generally speaking, use of heroin and other drugs increased during the Vietnam War. Part of that really should be attributed to the peace movement as well, but a lot of guys were exposed to drugs in Vietnam and brought the demand for the drugs back home. This created an increased market for drug related gangs.

Is this the fault of Vietnam- not really. The real problem was that the drug issue existed prior to the War, but was mostly concentrated in the inner city, predominantly minority areas. Those in power didn't really care about these problems until drug usage, and the social problems associated with drugs, primarily heroin, spread out of the inner cities minority populations and into the mainstream. Thus Nixon's War on Drugs begins during the later stage of the Vietnam War. I also believe the DEA begins about the same time.

A better argument might be that the drug problem existed before the war, but spread because of it, as well as the criminal behavior associated with the drug trade.
 
welsh said:
Except, Inane, countries are usually not so easily replicable. Do all countries have the same proportions of blacks to whites? Do all countries have the same economic problems?

Think about it this way, if you are merely making a causal claim using the US as an example- than you have an N = 1 problem. Any potential cause could be behind that statistic.

Are there two cultures in Russia- the one that is empowered and rich vs the one that is poor and constrained? What about in Chinese cities.

This is why a better way of dividing the society might be by social class. This way you can account for why poor white neighborhoods often suffer the same social and economic problems (including that of crime) as black neighborhoods. It would also allow you to test your argument more effectively across regions were race is inconsequential. Finally, it might account for your problem- why blacks commit crimes 7 times higher than whites, and why those crimes are lead to the victimization of blacks.



So you expand the set and compare other American cities- but other American cities have different ratios of blacks and whites, and different rates of crime.

Compare all cities across the world? Sure they don't all have the same racial composition- but you can find blacks in Paris, or Amsterdam - are they more prone to violence.

What about cities where there is no significant racial disparities, yet have high crime rates. That would suggest that the cause of crime is not "blacks" nor even race, but perhaps by some other division of society that you have not accounted for.

You have got to consider and eliminate alternative arguments. For example, you pm'd me that increase in crime in the correlated with increased movement of blacks out of the South into inner cities. Perhaps, but that doesn't explain why those rates go up and down depending on economic performance.

Also, an alternative argument- much of today's crime is related to drug trade. FBI statistics show that the person who is murdered today is not usually killed by an acquaintance, a variation in statistics from the past. Rather those that are killed and get killed are often inner city minorities in poor neighborhoods. Yet crime has spread outside of cities since the 1970s.

Yet we also know, from FBI documents (and for an interesting read see McCroy's Politics of Heroin in Southeast Asia), that while minorities have suffered the social problems related to the drug trade for many years going back before the Great Depression, police authorities basically did little to control this- it was seen as a problem of a minority trapped in the inner city and with little likelihood to spread out.

Yet, following the Vietnam War, many of the guys who returned brought with them their addictions- either through the use of heroin while overseas or because of a dependence on morphine related drugs due to injuries. The drug trade spread, paid for in part by foreign organizations (Corscian or Scilian mobsters or Asian gangs) and spread throughout the inner city by blacks. Increased markets meant a spread of those drugs.

Now gangs have spread out of cities into townships across the US, because gangs operate, in many ways, like franchises. If they sell a good to a community and compete over territory with a rush to seize territory before their competition. Like franchises they have a central management at the top of those who have survived and prospered in the business. Also like franchises they take advantage of youth for labor realizing that these youth will probably leave the trade- either by choice or by death.

But why? Because there is a rational ends- to make a profit. And why did this happen- because the police did little to control the drug trade early and the consequence of war allowed the trade to expand. Is it because of race? No, only in the sense that blacks had a competitive advantage in being at the center of the marketing of drugs early on.

But this is not a racial argument, merely an economic one in which one ethnicity had a preferential position in the marketing of a commodity.


I'M NOT ASKING THAT!!!!!

FIND ME PROOF THAT 7 TIMES HIGHER MURDER RATE IS POSSIBLE AMONGST DIFFERENT CULTURES, ANY CULTURES(based on culture religion or socioeconomics) AND OF THE SAME RACE, LIVING IN THE SAME REGION!! GODDAMN SHOW ME EVEN 4 TIMES AS HIGH AND I'LL RECONSIDER MY POSITION.

I have no intentions of convincing anyone to what I believe, I wanted to express that there IS other reason to believe what I do outside of "racism." That logical and statistical data is available to support my opinion.


DOOOOOOOOOH
 
welsh said:
Murdoch- I am just positing a different theory for the crime rates and its ethnic nature. Generally speaking, use of heroin and other drugs increased during the Vietnam War.

Is this the fault of Vietnam- not really.

Welsh, I was seeing if I could derail you. Hence the ':wink:'.

Guess what:
DANCE! PUPPET! DANCE!
 
Well seeing as how I have looked at a lot of the statistics, both criminal and sociological (seeing as how I am a sociology major focusing on criminology), I can pretty safely say trying to pin increased criminal tendency of "blacks" on genetics is bunk.


For starters there is a reason why biologists have almost universally refused to admit to the existence of multiple human races. The simply fact is human biodiversity is so small as to be virtually negligible. Yes, there are differences in physical qualities, but these are the result of adaptations to environmental conditions. There are, however, no credible sources to date which can pinpoint a genetic difference in mental ability. There do exist credible statistics correlating brain size with intelligence, but even this is belied by the difficulties inherent in standardized testing. Beyond this genetic testing has shown that outside of ethnically homogenous groups "races" have virtually no commonality. If you take a person from a Nordic country (which are for the most part ethnically homogenous) and compare that person's genetics to a random individual from Germany (who is also white, blond hair, etc) there will very likely be very little in common between the two beyond those superficial traits of physical appearance. It is very easy for a "white" person to have more in common with someone from Africa than their neighbor.

Race as we understand it is entirely a cultural phenomena. It is a set of physical characteristics which we use in order to organize people. Stereotypes are not entirely a bad thing. They do serve a societally useful function (at differing levels of society, but I am not here to regale anyone on any of the various sociology theories). Race is special amongst stereotypes as it presumes to attach cultural value (and to some extent mental ability) to physical characteristics.

Certainly anyone who pretends to be using statistics to support their case would not discount socioeconomic status, socio-political status, and whatever achieved status an individual may acquire as a result of their successes of failures in life. One would also be remiss in ignoring group social dynamics. Beyond this you would have to be either completely prejudiced against blacks or completely ignorant of conditions in most societies to not recognize the fact that in most countries where there exists a "black" minority that those people are subject to varying degrees of cultural exclusion.


Now I'm not going to even bother with expounding on the economic status side of things since it is easy to find out that "blacks" have a strong tendency to have lesser economic status in most societies (and in countries like Africa where "blacks" are a vast majority I don't consider having "black" as the predominant "racial" group responsible for crimes to be something out of the ordinary). Now this is indicative of a larger phenomena, namely the fact that in most countries where "blacks" are a minority (this term refers to political/social power and does not reflect population size) their status is a cultural holdover from racism and slavery of the past. I don't suppose the "White Man's Burden" rings any bells? Now most countries which presume to value civil liberties have taken steps to try and remove racism from their culture, but the simple fact is you can't just remove racism with a law or even a punishment.

Racism is an ideology, and as such it cannot be physically rooted out of a society. The simple fact is most people when they see a "black" man (in America this is 100% certain) are much more likely to be afraid of that person than a "white" person. You will also note that prevailing attitudes towards "blacks" and how they are portrayed in the media labels the "black man" a criminal. Now I'm not going to go in depth into Labeling Theory, but suffice it to say that Labeling Theory is very strong in Sociology, and it basically says that when you label a group as something, then there is a strong tendency for members of that group to acquire similar characteristics to what you are labeling them as.

As a result of their lesser status minorities do have a tendency to form a group consciousness (though Marx was off the mark in how pervasive and influential this would be), and thus we can also look into the social psychology of "black people." Amongst "black people" the belief that they are predisposed to be criminals or otherwise deviant creates an atmosphere of powerlessness (lack of ability to control their life's path). This sort of thing will predispose a people to form a sub-culture which embraces this "destiny." And in case you missed the memo people who are raised in a culture which embraces a given practice as culturally acceptable are FAR more likely to engage in that behavior.

Now if you had bothered to do something as simple as control for achieved status (take two heros or otherwise famous figures of both races), then you will find that the differences in crime rate very quickly become statistically insignificant. People who are better liked, better treated, and better viewed are FAR less likely to engage in deviant behavior. The more interesting statistic is the conviction rates. Which if you bother to look at the DOJ statistics you will find that "blacks" charged with the same crime are more likely than "whites" to be found guilty and more likely to receive a harsher sentence. Now, since I probably have to spell it out, this means that "blacks" are presumed to be possessed of greater guilt regardless of the circumstances.

Even at the intuitive level I'm pretty sure most people could appreciate why a group which feels as if they are unjustly deemed criminal could form a distrust and disrespect for the legal system.


Basically if you bothered to research your topic beyond what an amateur interpreter can glean from statistics you would realize that not only is your position flawed, but that it had been espoused before and has been debunked by about 20 years of sociology, social psychology, and evolutionary biology.

Even from a strictly biological approach it makes NO sense for a group to be biologically disposed to deviant behavior. Behavior which is non-communal undermines one of the most basic survival strategies of early man, and as such would not have existed. The only possible argument one can present is that the introduction of cities has caused the increase in "deviant" genes in "blacks." But the simple fact is Africans didn't live in cities, but rather in tribal centers until very recently. Quite simply "blacks" haven't had enough time evolutionarily to develop a greater occurence of "deviant" genes.


In short no, you don't have a statistically based position. And if you took the time to actually think about it you would realize that neither is it logical.
 
GhostWhoTalks said:
Well seeing as how I have looked at a lot of the statistics, both criminal and sociological (seeing as how I am a sociology major focusing on criminology), I can pretty safely say trying to pin increased criminal tendency of "blacks" on genetics is bunk.


For starters there is a reason why biologists have almost universally refused to admit to the existence of multiple human races. The simply fact is human biodiversity is so small as to be virtually negligible. Yes, there are differences in physical qualities, but these are the result of adaptations to environmental conditions. There are, however, no credible sources to date which can pinpoint a genetic difference in mental ability. There do exist credible statistics correlating brain size with intelligence, but even this is belied by the difficulties inherent in standardized testing. Beyond this genetic testing has shown that outside of ethnically homogenous groups "races" have virtually no commonality. If you take a person from a Nordic country (which are for the most part ethnically homogenous) and compare that person's genetics to a random individual from Germany (who is also white, blond hair, etc) there will very likely be very little in common between the two beyond those superficial traits of physical appearance. It is very easy for a "white" person to have more in common with someone from Africa than their neighbor.

Race as we understand it is entirely a cultural phenomena. It is a set of physical characteristics which we use in order to organize people. Stereotypes are not entirely a bad thing. They do serve a societally useful function (at differing levels of society, but I am not here to regale anyone on any of the various sociology theories). Race is special amongst stereotypes as it presumes to attach cultural value (and to some extent mental ability) to physical characteristics.

Certainly anyone who pretends to be using statistics to support their case would not discount socioeconomic status, socio-political status, and whatever achieved status an individual may acquire as a result of their successes of failures in life. One would also be remiss in ignoring group social dynamics. Beyond this you would have to be either completely prejudiced against blacks or completely ignorant of conditions in most societies to not recognize the fact that in most countries where there exists a "black" minority that those people are subject to varying degrees of cultural exclusion.


Now I'm not going to even bother with expounding on the economic status side of things since it is easy to find out that "blacks" have a strong tendency to have lesser economic status in most societies (and in countries like Africa where "blacks" are a vast majority I don't consider having "black" as the predominant "racial" group responsible for crimes to be something out of the ordinary). Now this is indicative of a larger phenomena, namely the fact that in most countries where "blacks" are a minority (this term refers to political/social power and does not reflect population size) their status is a cultural holdover from racism and slavery of the past. I don't suppose the "White Man's Burden" rings any bells? Now most countries which presume to value civil liberties have taken steps to try and remove racism from their culture, but the simple fact is you can't just remove racism with a law or even a punishment.

Racism is an ideology, and as such it cannot be physically rooted out of a society. The simple fact is most people when they see a "black" man (in America this is 100% certain) are much more likely to be afraid of that person than a "white" person. You will also note that prevailing attitudes towards "blacks" and how they are portrayed in the media labels the "black man" a criminal. Now I'm not going to go in depth into Labeling Theory, but suffice it to say that Labeling Theory is very strong in Sociology, and it basically says that when you label a group as something, then there is a strong tendency for members of that group to acquire similar characteristics to what you are labeling them as.

As a result of their lesser status minorities do have a tendency to form a group consciousness (though Marx was off the mark in how pervasive and influential this would be), and thus we can also look into the social psychology of "black people." Amongst "black people" the belief that they are predisposed to be criminals or otherwise deviant creates an atmosphere of powerlessness (lack of ability to control their life's path). This sort of thing will predispose a people to form a sub-culture which embraces this "destiny." And in case you missed the memo people who are raised in a culture which embraces a given practice as culturally acceptable are FAR more likely to engage in that behavior.

Now if you had bothered to do something as simple as control for achieved status (take two heros or otherwise famous figures of both races), then you will find that the differences in crime rate very quickly become statistically insignificant. People who are better liked, better treated, and better viewed are FAR less likely to engage in deviant behavior. The more interesting statistic is the conviction rates. Which if you bother to look at the DOJ statistics you will find that "blacks" charged with the same crime are more likely than "whites" to be found guilty and more likely to receive a harsher sentence. Now, since I probably have to spell it out, this means that "blacks" are presumed to be possessed of greater guilt regardless of the circumstances.

Even at the intuitive level I'm pretty sure most people could appreciate why a group which feels as if they are unjustly deemed criminal could form a distrust and disrespect for the legal system.


Basically if you bothered to research your topic beyond what an amateur interpreter can glean from statistics you would realize that not only is your position flawed, but that it had been espoused before and has been debunked by about 20 years of sociology, social psychology, and evolutionary biology.

Even from a strictly biological approach it makes NO sense for a group to be biologically disposed to deviant behavior. Behavior which is non-communal undermines one of the most basic survival strategies of early man, and as such would not have existed. The only possible argument one can present is that the introduction of cities has caused the increase in "deviant" genes in "blacks." But the simple fact is Africans didn't live in cities, but rather in tribal centers until very recently. Quite simply "blacks" haven't had enough time evolutionarily to develop a greater occurence of "deviant" genes.


In short no, you don't have a statistically based position. And if you took the time to actually think about it you would realize that neither is it logical.


Thank God!!! Ghost you're a miracle. Someone who actually knows the discussion at hand.
Now ghost, explain to me why dogs are less heterogenous yet display more differences in terms of aggressiveness and behavior than do humans. Also, you say that there has not been enough time. The time you speak of hasn't even been set down concretely. Some scientists believe it to be less than 50,000 years and others hold that the deviation of the continental, so called, "races" of Eurasia and Africa predate 150,000 years ago... enough time, either way, for Zebras to diverge from Horses and Dogs from Wolves. Furthermore, it's been enough time for every other hominid on this planet to be wiped out completely.

(thank you :D)
 
Dogs display more variance in terms of how much aggressiveness they display due to ten thousand or so years of selective breeding and husbandry by man AND due to how the dogs are raised. Now if you would like the analogy between dogs and humans to remain intact perhaps you can point out to me where it is exactly that "black" people are being trained to be vicious killers or maybe evidence of intervention into their evolutionary progression which would predispose them to greater violence. I might even accept a historical period (and it must be more than one single instance but rather a protracted period of time) during which native Africans would have been exposed to some circumstances which required greater violence in order to survive.

From a strictly evolutionary perspective it would make no sense for early man to be predisposed towards violence. Any "race" which had developed an increased tendency to kill members of its own band would not have survived (early man lived in groups of 50 people or so, and killing off even a single member would break down group unity and threaten survival of the whole band). Quite simply while man was living under conditions of hunting and gathering increased violence is suicidal. Anthropological studies of those cultures which were still hunting and gathering showed that they were far less predisposed to violent crime than their horticultural or agricultural neighbors.

With the rise of sedentism we see an initial spike in incidence of violence cross-culturally, and then we see another spike after the introduction of urbanism.

So when I point out there has not been enough time for violence to have become an evolutionarily adopted trait I am not speaking of 50,000 years of possible diversion. I am speaking of perhaps 400 or 500 years at most, which is how long ago the African Slave trade reached apogee. Now since the majority of those slaves didn't even live in cities until about 200 years ago it doesn't even seem reasonable to speak about 500 years of evolution, but rather closer to 200. And I seriously doubt you can find any evolutionary biologist willing to attest to great variations in gene content occurring in 200 years.
 
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